so if the pinstripe is said to have a homozygous form that has a phenotype very similar to it's heterozygous form would the pinstripe morph still considered dominant or is it now considered codominant because the full expression of the gene requires two copies?
i understand the concept of double homozygous recessive morphs such as the snow, i think i am confusing the difference between labelling dominant and codominant morphs with dominant and codominant genes.
for example one book i read says that the pastel is a codominant form where as super pastel is the dominant form. but after reading the posts in this thread i now think that pastel is a codom gene that requires two copies of itself to be fully expressed and that a super pastel is not a dominant gene, it is just a visual expression of two copies of the codominant pastel gene but we label it as the dominant or super form.
so i think that when we talk about dominant or codominant in ball python terms we are refferring to whether or not a certain morph has a known super form or not and we are not reffering to the actual genotype of the animal.