I have no objection to the term "incomplete dominant" so long as it is defined as producing a blended phenotype in the heterozygote and makes no assumptions as to allelic products. My point has always been that incomplete dominance and codominance have different mechanisms that produce results that are difficult for the naked eye to distinguish.
By the way, the biochemists have identified 5 mechanisms that can produce incomplete dominance or codominance. So I predict future changes in the definitions.
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