Re: Is a Pinstripe co-dom or dom?
Quote:
Originally Posted by
littleindiangirl
Dominant does not mean it is homozygous! Dominant plainly means that the animals with at least one copy of pin will be phenotypically pins, or rather be actual pins.
Pins may not be homozygous. So far, all the pins produced end up being heterozygous pins because not 100% of the offspring are pins, which with mendalin genetics is the way it should work out if they were homozygous.
That is where your definition is a little off. You shouldn't say dominant, rather homozygous or heterozygous like you did sorta in your first paragraph.
Dominant genes are expressed whether they are heterozygous or homozygous. (1 copy)
Recessive genes are only expressed when they are homozygous. (2 copies)
Perhaps I wasn't clear, but that's what I said (or intended to say). A lot of people seem to think that because a trait is dominant, all offspring will reflect that trait. Thats only the case if the parent is homozygous.
Steve
Re: Is a Pinstripe co-dom or dom?
Great job of clearing up the difference between homozygous and dominant you two. I think the two being confused on some web sites causes a lot of problems in the ball python industry. If we eventually get a proven dominant mutation we'll have 33% possible homozygous balls for sale.
