Genetics question -

[Morphie]

Has anyone sequenced the various BP morphs? So far I haven't been able to figure if the Mojave, for example, is a morph that is co-dominant or incomplete dominant. Apparently it is difficult to determine without sequencing. Has anyone done it? Does anyone have arguments as to why it would be co-D as opposed to incomplete-D?

Of course this question applies to all alleged "co-dominant" morphs, such as spider, cinnie, etc.

[Freakie_frog]

Has anyone sequenced the various BP morphs? So far I haven't been able to figure if the Mojave, for example, is a morph that is co-dominant or incomplete dominant. Apparently it is difficult to determine without sequencing. Has anyone done it? Does anyone have arguments as to why it would be co-D as opposed to incomplete-D?

Of course this question applies to all alleged "co-dominant" morphs, such as spider, cinnie, etc.

That would be a huge task that really would matter in the long run. But to answer your question no.

PSSSST spiders aren't co/dom

[Morphie]

That would be a huge task that really would matter in the long run. But to answer your question no.

PSSSST spiders aren't co/dom

ack! i knew that! lol. thanks.

[littleindiangirl]

Have they proven that they are dominant? Or is the dominant version a fatal? Has someone bred a spider to a spider and then bred that gen to each other to prove that there is no co-dom gene? I'm sure they have, just wanna know what they got and what bad effects there were from it.

[CntrlF8]

so far, nobody has been able to prove out a "super spider" which generally indicates that it's a dominant gene.

[littleindiangirl]

I'm just asking because maybe its a fatal gene when its homozygous. If it were truly dominant, then bred to a normal would create all spiders. So calling it dominant is misleading. It needs a category of its own i think.

[Seneschal]

No, if it were dominant and the parent carrier was heterozygous spider (visible spider) bred to a normal then the spider parent would only contribute one allele, not necessarily the one necessary for a spider morph.

---S---N
N| SN NN
N| SN NN

so, 50% spider, %50 normal.

---S---N
S| SS SN
N| SN NN
50% heterozygous (but still visible spider), 25% normal, and 25% homozygous spider--theoretically identical to the het spiders, so you wouldn't be able to tell unless you bred it to a normal.

---S---S
N| SN SN
N| SN SN

so the homo spider bred to a normal would make all spiders, thus theoretically proving the spider a dominant gene and proving that particular spider parent to be homozygous for the trait.

[littleindiangirl]

Right, your 50/50 is still what most would call the co-dom morph because the het version expresses that gene, just like pastel and many others. I'm more interested in what actually comes from a spider/spider crossing for 2 consecutive generations. If there is actually a homozygous form.

[Seneschal]

As a dominant gene the homozygous form of the animal would be identical to the heterozygous form.

[Seneschal]

Here's a visual representation (the pics aren't mine but there you have it.)

DOMINANT GENES: Spider used as example.




CODOMINANT GENES: Pastel used as example.